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ECO 372 Final Exam Latest UOP Complete Class Assignments

ECO 372 Final Exam Latest UOP Complete Class Assignments

 

  1. News Story: Workers at a car-manufacturing plant in Flint, Michigan are laid off because the economy is weak and GM cars aren't selling well. GM isn't sure when the plant will reopen. What type of unemployment describes the workers' situation?
  • Frictional unemployment
  • Structural unemployment
  • Full unemployment
  • Cyclical unemployment

ECO 372 Final Questions and Answers ECO 372 Week 5 Final Exam 

  1. Globalization that allows governments to pursue expansionary policies can be dangerous because it can lead to:
  • A reduction in the debt ceiling
  • Goods price inflation
  • Asset price inflation
  • Goods price deflation

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  1. Macroeconomics is:
  • The study of aggregate economic relationships.
  • An analysis of economic reality that proceeds from the parts to the whole.
  • The study of pricing policies of firms and the purchasing decisions of households.
  • The study of individual choice and how that choice is influenced by economic forces.

ECO 372 Final Exam Solution

  1. Which of the following types of unemployment is considered to be the most controllable through demand-side macroeconomic policy?
  • Frictional unemployment
  • Cyclical unemployment
  • Structural unemployment
  • Natural unemployment

Answers To ECO 372 Week 5 Final Exam 

  1. If banks hold excess reserves whereas before they did not, the money multiplier:
  • Will become smaller
  • Will become larger
  • Might increase or might decrease
  • Will be unaffected
  1. Using the expenditure approach, gross domestic product equals:
  • The sum of consumption, investment, government purchases, and net exports
  • Gross national product minus net exports
  • The sum of consumption, investment, and government purchases
  • Gross national product

ECO 372 Final Exam Test

  1. How do investment in technology and investment in capital differ?
  • They have similar effects on output so they have no important differences from an economic point of view.
  • They have the same effects on output but investments in technology are much more closely tied to the level of saving than investments in capital.
  • They have different effects on output because of the positive externalities associated with investments in capital.
  • They have different effects on output because of the positive externalities associate with investments in technology.

ECO 372 Principles of Macro Economics Final Exam Answers

  1. The interest rate is the price paid for use of a:
  • Real asset.
  • Financial liability.
  • Financial asset.
  • Real liability.

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  1. If the reserve requirement is 20 percent, and banks keep no excess reserves, an increase in an initial inflow of $100 into the banking system will cause an increase in the money supply of:
  • $50
  • $100
  • $500
  • $20

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  1. Suppose farmers can use their land to grown either wheat or corn. The law of supply predicts that an increase in the market price of wheat will cause:
  • Farmers to substitute wheat for the production of corn.
  • Farmers to raise the production of corn and wheat.
  • Farmers to lower the production of corn and wheat.
  • Farmers to substitute corn for the production of wheat.

11. according to Keynes, why might deflation create problems for an   economy?

  • In expectation of increased spending, too many entrepreneurs would begin businesses and most would fail.
  • The cost of repricing goods would increase costs, and therefore reduce profits, for businesses and they would cut production.
  • People would drop out of unions because unions would become ineffective at keeping wages of members high.
  • Consumers might expect prices to fall further and cut back consumption now.

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12.  When interest rates rise, people are:

  • More likely to borrow, that is, purchase a financial asset.
  • More likely to borrow, that is, sell a financial asset.
  • Less likely to borrow, that is, sell a financial asset.
  • Less likely to borrow, that is, purchase a financial asset.

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13. according to the Classical growth model, an economy that increases its saving will grow:

  • Quickly since the increase in saving will permit greater investment.
  • Quickly since the increase in saving will permit more rapid technological progress.
  • Slowly because interest rates will fall, causing investment to decline.
  • Slowly because consumption and aggregate demand will be reduced.

14. Suppose that consumer spending is expected to decrease in the near future. If output is at potential output, which of the following policies is most appropriate according to the AS/AD model?

  • A reduction in government spending
  • An increase in taxes
  • An increase in government spending
  • No change in taxes or government spending

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15.  Which of the following topics is best characterized as a macroeconomic issue?

  • The effect of a drought on the price of corn
  • The decision by Apple to produce fewer Macintosh computers
  • The effect of an increase in federal spending on the unemployment rate
  • The choice a student makes in selecting college course

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16.  If income increases more rapidly than expected, then:

  • Estimates of the target rate of employment are likely to increase.
  • The budget is less likely to be in surplus.
  • Tax revenues will be lower than expected.
  • Spending on income-support programs will likely be lower than expected.

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17.  In which of the following situations is a budget surplus most likely to occur?

  • When fiscal policy is contractionary and the economy is expanding
  • When fiscal policy is expansionary and the economy is contracting
  • When fiscal policy is expansionary
  • When the economy is contracting

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18. The largest expenditure component of GDP is:

  • Government spending
  • Net exports
  • Investment
  • Consumption

19.  Which of the following is the path through which contractionary monetary policy works?

  • Money down implies interest rate up implies investment up implies income down.
  • Money down implies interest rate down implies investment down implies income down.
  • Money down implies interest rate up implies investment down implies income down.
  • Money down implies interest rate down implies investment up implies income down.

ECO 372

20.  As a country develops economically, what changes usually take place in the goods it exports?

  • There is little change because comparative advantage does not change.
  • Exports go from being diversified to being specialized in whatever the country finds to its comparative advantage.
  • Services and manufactured goods decline in importance and are replaced by raw materials and agricultural products.
  • Raw materials and agricultural products decline in importance and are replaced by services and manufactured goods.

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21.  What would make foreigners want to buy more from the United States?

  • Higher tariffs
  • Higher interest rates in the United States
  • Inflation in the United States
  • A fall in the value of the dollar in the foreign exchange market

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22.  The depreciation of currency will:

  • Balance a trade surplus.
  • Have no impact on a country's comparative advantage.
  • Worsen a country's comparative advantage.
  • Improve a country's comparative advantage.

23.  The government of Crossland wants to influence its exchange rate. It will do so by buying and selling:

  • Currencies in its official reserves
  • Commodities
  • Goods and services from the current account
  • Transfers

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24.  If a country wants to prevent its exchange rates from falling, it could:

  • Place restrictions on imports
  • Pursue easier monetary policy
  • Remove any subsidies on exports
  • Remove restrictions on imports

25.  Central banks are responsible for:

  • Both monetary policy and fiscal policy
  • Monetary policy but not fiscal policy
  • Neither monetary policy nor fiscal policy
  • Fiscal policy but not monetary policy

26.  Quotas and tariffs can:

  • Never have the same effect on imports and import prices.
  • Have the same effect on the price of domestically produced goods if they are set appropriately.
  • Yield the same amount of tax revenue if they are set appropriately.
  • Both increase international trade by the same amount if set appropriately.

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27.  Between 2007 and 2009, the U.S. unemployment rate rose from under 5 percent to over 8 percent. A Keynesian economist would most likely blame this increase in unemployment on:

  • An increase in the minimum wage.
  • An increase in the bargaining power of labor unions.
  • A decline in the level of aggregate demand.
  • A decline in aggregate supply.

28.  U.S. imports involve an:

  • Inflow of foreign currency from foreigners to the U.S. economy
  • Inflow of dollars from foreigners to the United States economy
  • Outflow of foreign currency from the United States to foreigners
  • Outflow of dollars from the United States to foreigners

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29.  The law of demand states that quantity demanded of a good is inversely related to the price of that good. Therefore, as the price of a good goes:

  • Up, the quantity demanded goes down.
  • Down, the quantity demanded stays the same.
  • Up, the quantity demanded also goes up.
  • Down, the quantity demanded goes down.

30. according to Keynes, market economies:

  • Never experience significant declines in aggregate demand.
  • Are constantly experiencing significant declines in aggregate demand.
  • May recover slowly after they experience a significant decline in aggregate demand.
  • Quickly recover after they experience a significant decline in aggregate demand.

 

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FIN 370 University Of Phoenix Final Exam Assignment

FIN 370 University Of Phoenix Final Exam Assignment

 

1. The Securities Investor Protection Corporation protects individuals from

  • brokerage firm failures
  • making poor investment decisions
  • fraud by corporations
  • other investors who fail to make delivery

 

2. You just purchased a parcel of land for $10,000. If you expect a 12% annual rate of return on your investment, how much will you sell the land for in 10 years?

  • $38,720
  • $39,720
  • $31,060
  • $25,000

 

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3. When calculating the weighted average cost of capital, which of the following has to be adjusted for taxes?

  • Debt
  • Preferred stock
  • Retained earnings
  • Common stock

 

4. Buying and selling in more than one market to make a riskless profit is called:

  • profit maximization.
  • globalization
  • arbitrage.
  • international trading.

 

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5. Which of the following is true about bonds?

  • They have a fixed maturity, and they pay an amount equal to the maturity value times the coupon rate each year.
  • At maturity of the bond, the investor receives the market price of the bond.
  • They are obligations from the investor to the corporation.
  • Their interest rate always varies with the Consumer Price Index

 

6. Compute the payback period for a project with the following cash flows, if the company's discount rate is 12%.

Initial outlay = $450

Cash flows:         Year 1 = $325

                          Year 2 = $65

                          Year 3 = $100

  • 3.17 years
  • 2.6 years
  • 2.88 years
  • 3.43 years

 

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7. Which of the following best describes why cash flows are utilized rather than accounting profits when evaluating capital projects?

  • Cash flows have a greater present value than accounting profits.
  • Cash flows improve the tax position of a firm more than accounting profits.
  • Cash flows are more stable than accounting profits.
  • Cash flows reflect the timing of benefits and costs more accurately than accounting profits.

 

8. Delta Inc. is considering the purchase of a new machine which is expected to increase sales by $10,000 in addition to increasing non-depreciation expenses by $3,000 annually. Due to the sales increase, Delta expects its working capital to increase $1,000 during the life of the project. Delta will depreciate the machine using the straight-line method over the project's five year life to a salvage value of zero. The machine's purchase price is $20,000. The firm has a marginal tax rate of 34 percent, and its required rate of return is 12 percent. The machine's initial cash outflow is:

  • $23,000.
  • $20,000.
  • $27,000.
  • $21,000.

 

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9. Which of the following is most likely to occur if a firm over-invests in net working capital?

  • The return on investment will be lower than it should be.
  • The times interest earned ratio will be lower than it should be.
  • The current ratio will be lower than it should be.
  • The quick ratio will be lower than it should be.

 

10. Metals Corp. has $2,575,000 of debt, $550,000 of preferred stock, and $18,125,000 of common equity. Metals Corp.'s after-tax cost of debt is 5.25%, preferred stock has a cost of 6.35%, and newly issued common stock has a cost of 14.05%. What is Metals Corp.'s weighted average cost of capital?

  • 8.32%
  • 6.56%
  • 10.84%
  • 12.78%

 

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11. Which of the following financial ratios is the best measure of the operating effectiveness of a firm's management?

  • Return on investment
  • Gross profit margin
  • Current ratio
  • Quick ratio

 

12. We compute the profitability index of a capital-budgeting proposal by Initial outlay = $1,748.80

  • dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cost of capital.
  • multiplying the cash inflow by the IRR. 
  • multiplying the IRR by the cost of capital.
  • dividing the present value of the annual after-tax cash flows by the cost of the project. 

 

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13. A company collects 60% of its sales during the month of the sale, 30% one month after the sale, and 10% two months after the sale. The company expects sales of $10,000 in August, $20,000 in September, $30,000 in October, and $40,000 in November. How much money is expected to be collected in October?

  • $15,000
  • $35,000
  • $25,000
  • $45,000

 

14. Which of the following could offset the higher risk exposure a company would face if it’s current ratio and net working capital were relatively low?

  • Its accounts receivable collection policy could increase the average collection period.
  • It could offer no discounts for early payment by its customers.
  • It could buy back some of its shares in the open market in order to reduce its equity.
  • Its current assets would need to be highly liquid.

 

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15. The Oviedo Thespians are planning to present performances of their Florida Revue on 2 consecutive nights in January. It will cost them $5,000 per night for theater rental, event insurance and professional musicians. The theater will also take 10% of gross ticket sales. How many tickets must they sell at $10.00 per ticket to raise $1,000 for their organization?

  • 1,314 tickets
  • 1,112 tickets
  • 1,223 tickets
  • 1000 tickets

 

16. Aspects of demand risk controllable by the firm include:

  • product quality.
  • interest rates.
  • entry of external competitors.
  • status of the regional and national economy.

 

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17. Which of the following is true regarding Investment Banks?

  • As of 2010, stand alone Investment banks are numerous.
  • Under the Glass-Steagal act, commercial banks were allowed to operate as Investment banks.
  • As a result of the financial crisis of 2008, all stand-alone Investment banks either failed, were merged into commercial banks, or became commercial banks.
  • When Glass-Steagal was repealed in 1999, commercial banks and Investment banks had to be separate entities.

 

18. Given an accounts receivable turnover of 8 and annual credit sales of $362,000, the average collection period (360-day year) is

  • 60 days.
  • 75 days
  • 90 days.
  • 45 days.

 

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19. When the impact of taxes is considered, as the firm takes on more debt

  • there will be no change in total cash flows.
  • cash flows will increase because taxes will decrease.
  • the weighted average cost of capital will increase.
  • both taxes and total cash flow to stockholders and bondholders will decrease.

 

20. If you have $20,000 in an account earning 8% annually, what constant amount could you withdraw each year and have nothing remaining at the end of five years?

  • $5,008.76
  • $3,525.62
  • $3,408.88
  • $2,465.78

 

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21. Apple Two Enterprises expects to generate sales of $5,950,000 for fiscal 2014; sales were $3,450,000 in fiscal 2013. Assume the following figures for the fiscal year ending 2013: cash $70,000; accounts receivable $250,000; inventory $400,000; net fixed assets $520,000; accounts payable $235,000; and accruals $155,000. Use the percent-of-sales method to forecast cash for the fiscal year ending 2014.

  • $75,003
  • $216,418
  • $120,725
  • $319,604

 

22. If managers are making decisions to maximize shareholder wealth, then they are primarily concerned with making decisions that should:

  • maximize sales revenues
  • either increase or have no effect on the value of the firm's common stock.
  • increase the market value of the firm's common stock.
  • positively affect profits.

 

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23. Project Sigma requires an investment of $1 million and has a NPV of $10. Project Delta requires an investment of $500,000 and has a NPV of $150,000. The projects involve unrelated new product lines. What is your evaluation of these two projects?

  • Only project Delta should be accepted. Alpha's NPV is too low for the investment.
  • Neither project should be accepted because they might compete with one another
  • The company should look at other investment criteria, not just NPV.
  • Both projects should be accepted because they have positive NPV's

 

24. Capital Structure Theory in general assumes that:

  • A firm's value is determined by discounting the firm's expected cash flows by the WACC.
  • A firm's cost of capital rises as a firm uses more financial leverage.
  • A firm's value is determined by capitalizing (discounting) the firm's expected net income by the firm's cost of equity.
  • A firm's cash flows will grow indefinitely at a constant rate.

 

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25. Which of the following best describes why cash flows are utilized rather than accounting profits when evaluating capital projects?

  • Cash flows reflect the timing of benefits and costs more accurately than accounting profits.
  • Cash flows have a greater present value than accounting profits.
  • Cash flows improve the tax position of a firm more than accounting profits.
  • Cash flows are more stable than accounting profits.

 

26. Which of the following is not part of the underwriting process?

  • the syndicate
  • the prospectus
  • the Federal Reserve
  • the Securities and Exchange Commission

 

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27. Long-term financial plans typically encompass:

  • 6 to 12 months.
  • 5 to 10 years.
  • about 5 years.
  • the entire lifecycle of the corporation.

 

28. Accounting break-even analysis solves for the level of sales that will result in:

  • IRR = Cost of Capital.
  • net income = $0.00.
  • Free cash flow = $0.00.
  • NPV = $0.00.

 

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29. Which of the following statements best represents what finance is about?

  • How political, social, and economic forces affect corporations
  • Reducing risk 
  • Creation and maintenance of economic wealth
  • Maximizing profits

 

30. Which of the following goals is in the best long-term interest of stockholders?

  • Risk minimization
  • Maximizing of the market value of the existing shareholders' common stock
  • Maximizing sales revenues
  • Profit maximization

 

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This article covers the topic for the University Of Phoenix FIN 370 Final Exam . The author is working in the field of education from last 5 years. This article covers the basic of  FIN 370 Final Exam Assignment from UOP. Other topics in the class are as follows:

 

 

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